1. A blockage in the isthmus of the uterine tube would most likely prevent which of the following processes:
A) Completion of meiosis I
B) Completion of meiosis II
C) Metaphase 2 of meiosis
D) Ovulation
E) Phase I of meiosis
2. Serum samples from a normal woman with a history of regular 28-day menstrual cycles show a peak in the serum concentration of 17 β-estradiol over the past 12 hours. No progesterone is detectable. Within 3 days, which of the following is expected to occur:
A) Cessation of menstruation
B) Decreased basal body temperature
C) Onset of menstruation
D) Ovulation
E) Regression of the carpus luteum
3. What changes occurs in circulatory system during pregnancy?
A) Cardiac output increases
B) Heart muscle hypertrophies
C) Blood volume remains unchanged
D) Heart rate increases
4. After complete hepatectomy, the plasma level of the following increases:
A) Estrogen
B) Albumin
C) Conjugated bilirubin
D) Fibrinogen
5. What changes occurs in respiratory system during pregnancy:
A) Respiratory rate is decreased
B) PCO2 is increased
C) Minute ventilation is increased
D) Residual volume is increased
6. The substance which is unable to cross placental barrier
A) Amino acid
B) IgM
C) IgG
D) Na+
E) K+
7. Substances which cross placental membrane passively doesn’t include:
A) Glucose
B) Amino acid
C) Na+
D) K+
E) Ketone bodies
8. During pregnancy which of the following parameters is decreased
C) Tidal volume
D) Prothrombin time
E) Gamma globulins
9. The weight of which hormone secreted during pregnancy is approximately equal to the weight of placenta
A) Estrogen
B) Progesterone
C) hCG
D) hPL
10. Which hormone stimulates respiration and causes the arterial PCO2 to fall during pregnancy:
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
C) Insulin
D) Cortisol
11. In pregnant woman, the most likely change in liver expected to be seen is:
A) Acute hepatitis
B) Autoimmune hepatitis
C) HELLP syndrome
D) Fatty change
12. Which hormone causes stromal and ductal growth in the breast:
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
E) hPL
13. Decrease level of FSH will lead to
A) Decrease level of testosterone
B) Decrease sperm count
C) Decrease level of LH
D) Increased level of testosterone
14. A primigravida came for antenatal checkup. Her labs shows 12 g% of HB: amount of iron needed by her is
A) 3.5 mg per day
B) An apple a day
C) Two glass of milk
D) 10mg of elemental iron
15. The hormone affecting the growth of lobules and alveoli of breast is
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
16. The hormone causing the growth of ducts of breast and deposition of fat in breast is
A) Progesterone
B) Estrogen
17. A patient who is in labor, the most important factor for initiation of labor is
B) Maternal PG
C) Maternal oxytocin
D) Amniotomy
E) Syntocinon drip
18. If a woman has regular menstrual cycle of 26-28 days, the ovulation occur at
A) 10-12 days
B) 12-14 days
C) 14-16 days
D) 16-18 days
19. DUB is
A) Common in prepubertal girls
B) Common in early teens
C) Dependent on the presence of progesterone
D) Uncommon during the perimenopausal years
20. One of the following is true regarding prolactin:
A) Stop ovulation
B) Ejection of milk
C) Induces ovulation
D) Effects water balance
21. Fructose, a source of energy for spermatozoa, is found primarily in secretions from the
A) Testis
B) Epididymis
C) Prostate
D) Seminal vesicles


1. Which one of the following conditions is most common cause of maternal mortality in the United States?
a) Infection
b) Haemorrhage
c) Hypertension
d) Trauma
e) Thromboembolism

2. Which of the following condition is most common cause of perinatal morbidity and mortality in the United States?
a) Congenital malformation
b) Preterm delivery
d) Infection
e) Abnormal karyotype
3. Which one of the following statement regarding Naegele’s and estimated due date is true?
a) EDD equal to date of LMP minus 3 months plus tree days
b) EDD is falsely prolonged when menstrual cycle exceeds 28 days
c) EDD must be adjusted to the duration of the proliferative phase of cycle
d) EDD calculation assumes a variable follicular phase
e) If LMP is 4 July then EDD is February 7
4. A presumptive sign of pregnancy is
a) Hegar’s sign
b) Palpation of fetal parts
c) Uterine enlargements
d) Amenorrhea
5. Which one of the following condition cause the majority of birth defects:
a) Polygenic or multifactorial disorder
b) Cytogenetic disorder
c) Teratogenic exposure
d) Single gene disorder
6. If 35 year old multigravida undergoes maternal serum α-fetoprotein screening during her pregnancy. Analysis shows a positive high level. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this finding
a) Open neural tube defects
b) Ventral wall defect
c) Gestational age dating error
d) Placental bleeding
e) Fetal demise
7. A 28 years old woman with a family history of birth defects comes to the office requesting pre-conceptional counseling regarding prevention of congenital anomalies, which one the following condition can be prevented by giving this woman folate supplementation:
a) Ventral wall defects
b) Neural tube defects
c) Trisomy 21
d) Turner syndrome
e) Fetal alcohol syndrome
8. Which one of the following clinical parameters is most helpful in confirming accurate gestation dating?
a) FHT by Doppler stethoscope at 16 weeks
b) Multigravida report of quickening at 20 weeks
c) PG report of quickening at 18 weeks
d) FHT by fetoscope at 24 weeks
9. A 26 years old woman presents to the maternity unit with preterm contractions to determine gestation age, you review the prenatal chart and find a number of prenatal ultrasound reports. Which one of the following is most accurate sonographic dating parameters:
a) CRL at 10 weeks
b) BPD at 15 weeks
c) AC at 25 weeks
d) HC at 30 weeks
e) FL at 35 weeks
10. A 20 years old pregnant woman undergoes a 28 week obstetric ultrasound examination, decrease amniotic fluid is evident. Which one of the following fetal anomalies is most likely associated with this finding
a) Anencephaliy
b) Obstructive renal lesions
c) Obstructive GI lesions
d) Neuromuscular disorder


1. The sensory pain fibers to the uterus pass through which one of the following ligaments?`
A. C ardinal ligament
B. Broad ligament
C. Round ligament
D. Uterosacral ligament
E. Utero vesical ligamen
2. The relevative orientation of the ureter to the uterine artery i.e the point where they meet is which of the following positions?
A. Superior and posterior
B. Lateral and deep
C. Inferior and posterior
D. Medial and superficial
E. Superior and anterior
3. The regeneration of the endometrial lining arises from which of the following layers?
A. Zona basalis
B. Zona pellucidum
C. Zona compacta
D. Zona functionalis
E. Zona spongiosa
4. All of the following provide support to the vagina except the
A. Perineal body
B. Pelvic diaphragm
C. Cardinal ligament
D. Uterosacral ligament
E. Infundibulopelvic ligament
5. Which of the following statements regarding the gastrointestinal tract in pregnancy is correct?it results in
A. Increased motilin levels
B. Decreased gastric residual volume
C. Increased gastroesophageal sphinter tone
D. Increased peptic ulcer disease
E. Increased reflux esophagitis
6. Which of the following structures does not derive at least partial blood supply from the uterine artery?
A. Oviduct
B. Bladder
C. Ovary
D. Cervix
E. Fundus
7. The underlying pathogenesis of preeclampsia is
A. Leakage of protein into urine
B. Thrombocytopenia from platelet destruction
C. Edema from increased interstial fluid
E. Diffuse vasospasm
8. The definitive treatment for pre eclampsia is
A. Bed rest in the left lateral position
B. Pregnancy termination
C. High protein diet
D. Daily dose of aspirin
E. Magnesium sulphate
9. A 38 year old woman gravid 3 para 2 and gestational amenorrohea 20 weeks have history of tetrology of fallots that was surgically corrected at age of 2 years.she has no symptoms at rest but she has minor limitations with activity.her functional classification of heart disease ,according to New York heart association, is
A. Class 1
B. Class 2
C. Class 3
D. Class 4
10. All of the following conditions are risk factors for urinary tract infections in pregnancy except
B. Gout
C. Chronic hypertension
D. Sickle cell disease
E. Vesicourethral reflux